Prostate cancer
CRPC: treatment in daily clinical practice

Alan (67 years old)

Alan, a 67-year-old otherwise a healthy man, was diagnosed with high-risk PCa (cT2b, biopsy ISUP grade 3 [Gleason score 4+3]) and treated with RP + ePLND.

  • Pathology report: pT3aN0M0 PCa, negative surgical margins
  • Postoperative PSA: 0.03 ng/ml

1 year later, the PSA rose to 0.18 ng/ml and he was treated with salvage EBRT which resulted in an undetectable PSA.

Again 1 year later, the PSA increased to 1.30 ng/ml (N0M0 on bone scan and CT). He received ADT; PSA: 0.09 ng/ml.

However, 3 years later the PSA level increased to 0.7 ng/ml, with a PSA-DT of 17 months (serum testosterone 18 ng/dl). The bone and CT scan were negative for metastasis.

Which of the following options would you choose for this patient?